Unfortunately I don’t think there is a simple answer to the question as there are so many variables for example (not exhaustive): was ecclesiastical law involved? which country did the people involved live in? when did the activities take place? (with apologies) potentially what were the detailed sexual activities that took place?
Indeed.
My question was prompted by instances in Scotland, so English law would not have applied, and I was more interested in less recent events, say over 150 years ago. As for the detailed activities, it was a general rather than a specific question, so could have involved different activities in different cases.
As for ecclesiastical law, that's a whole new can of worms. Ecclesiastical or canon law as it applies or applied in England and Wales isn't relevant, and what are sometimes described as 'crimes' in the Kirk Session records are not crimes in the eyes of Scots Law, which stands separate from the kirk.
For example, until 1939 it was always possible to marry by declaration in Scotland, and although the Kirk took exception to this and tried to prevent it, or to fine anyone who had chosen to marry by declaration, the marriage was recognised as valid in the civil courts.
I reckon you are right, and that there isn't a definitive answer.