Place name accuracy

[rpweedon]

Hello Rootschat experts!

I am researching the Weedon name and, at the moment, have focussed on one area of what is now North London.  In the late 1700s and early 1800s Weedons were located in Edgeware, Elstree, Finchley Common, Little Stanmore and Stanmore all of which are quite close to one another.  Is it possible that geographic references were casually made in those times or should I assume that the differences were strongly held?  Are these location references in certain genealogical records 'equivalent'?  Can I make that assumption?

Thanks for your help, in advance.

[Vance Mead]

In general, I'd say that, for example in wills and parish records, if someone was described as "of Watford", for example, the reference was not casually made. But people could move from one parish to another in the course of a lifetime. Wills often show people holding land in more than one parish. As a result of the Poor Laws some parishes restricted movement into them of people who might become a burden on the parish. Others were more willing to accept newcomers.

So, briefly, when parish records, wills, and other sources show a person as of a particular place, this has meaning, but it's not carved in stone.

[KGarrad]

I think it rather depends on who you are talking to?

I was born in a hospital in Bristol, but my home town is Portishead in North Somerset.
Depending on who I am talking to, I tell people I am from Portishead, Somerset, Bristol or even West of England!

Depends on if people know of Portishead, or Somerset,or even Bristol.

And, of course,these days I say I am from the Isle of Man - and then have to explain where that is and that it is NOT the Isle of Wight.