If the supposed average rate of illegitimacy is 5% - does that mean, in 10 generations i.e. on average, about 300 years, the likelihood of your ancestor in the male line being someone of a different surname is 50%? And in 600 years, it is almost certain that one of your male ancestors would have had a father who was not who he was meant to be (or they inherited their mother's surname)
?
An average of 5% remains as 5% irrespective of the number involved.
The base number might change but an Average percentile remains static
I don't think this is correct. Think of it this way......
there is a game in which you have a 5% chance of winning - if you play once, you have a 5% chance to win, but if you are allowed to pay twice, you have a 10% chance you will eventually win, play four times, a 20% chance etc.
Similarly if you are baby that is born, there is 5% chance your father will not the person whose surname you bear. If you think of each birth as a separate but linked event, the chance increases the number of 'tries' at this game that occur.....