Hi All,
I have two marriage certificates from London (1839 and 1869) both of which show the same "residence at the time of marriage" for bride and groom.
I had understood that the groom may have used the bride's address to ensure that the marriage could take place at the bride's parish church and this is probably the case on the later certificate. On the earlier certificate I doubt whether the address given would be in the parish of the church (I have not yet been able to confirm who lived at this address).
My query is whether there is some further "custom" associated with how the address at the time of marriage was given and whether marriages did take place outside of the parish based on residence (then it would not seen to make sense to ensure the addresses were the same).
Thanks for any comments.
David