Something that's puzzling me!
A couple I've been looking at on my family tree were living together as man and wife on the 1881 census. Their eldest child was born in 1875 and they had a further five children who were all baptised with the mothers surname (Singleton) and no father's name (Nelson), although they are all down as Nelson on the censuses.
This couple went on to marry in 1888 and then had two more "legitimate" children.
They lived very near the church and they cared enough to baptise their children, so why didn't they marry earlier rather than having six children with the stigma of being illegitimate.
I've no evidence to show either were married before.
Just curious to know if anyone has any ideas as to why!!!