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As in all such situations the children were only legitimate if the irregular marriage took place before any kids were conceived. Otherwise, in Scots Law, they were known as adulterine bastards ! ...
Just some further clarifications/questions.
My understanding (admittedly all too often imperfect!) has always been that a so-called '
adulterine bastard' referred to a child where one (or both) of the parents was not free to marry i.e. one (or both) of the parents was already married to someone else?
And that a child of parents who were not married to each other was simply called a 'bastard'?
And that, in Scots Law, a child of parents who were not married would be legitimated by their subsequent marriage as long as they had been free to marry at the time of the birth (or perhaps conception? - though this could be difficult to establish with any precision) of the child?
I'd really appreciate hearing from ibi or anyone else with views on this, and particularly from anyone with access to authoritative sources.
Many thanks,
JAP