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« on: Wednesday 27 August 25 17:27 BST (UK) »
I've been rereading Jane Austen recently and was reminded of all these wealthy young ladies with "portions" of £2000, 10000 or even 30000.
I'm presuming this was basically a dowry? And was handed it over to the husband as one lump sum (because I don't suppose for one moment that the women got to keep it - what was theirs, was his, once they were married!)
If the woman then died not long after marriage, say in the first year, in childbirth (not that uncommon), did it revert to her family? Or if not routinely, could such conditions(and others) be attached? If the husband died, did it revert to the woman, or only if specified in the husband's will?
And to look specifically at a family which I'm studying - what would a portion of £1000 in 1695 be equivalent to in 1810, when Jane Austen was writing?