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Europe / Re: French translation
« on: Wednesday 11 February 26 08:56 GMT (UK) »
Yes , you're right, I found that too yesterday.
The book from which comes the snippet was published in 1669 , no 1619 , it was the second edition, the 1rst one being 1661. So when the author says " le roi d'aprésent" , he means the king who reigned in 1661 ( Philippe IV) and in 1620 it was Philippe III.
The story of the "sans pareil" pearl may be true , but it also may be a faulse family story .
There was a pearl with no equal in the royal family of Spain : the Perigrina, but it was bought by Philipp II some decades before 1620.
The book from which comes the snippet was published in 1669 , no 1619 , it was the second edition, the 1rst one being 1661. So when the author says " le roi d'aprésent" , he means the king who reigned in 1661 ( Philippe IV) and in 1620 it was Philippe III.
The story of the "sans pareil" pearl may be true , but it also may be a faulse family story .
There was a pearl with no equal in the royal family of Spain : the Perigrina, but it was bought by Philipp II some decades before 1620.