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General => The Common Room => Topic started by: robweldon on Friday 19 September 25 02:36 BST (UK)
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If a girl gets married in 18th century but then has an affair resulting in several children, is it illegal for these children to be Christened in such a bigamous arrangement? And is it normal for these children to then be multiply Christened on a single day after the death of the original husband?
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Illegitimate children were baptised, so I see no reason why children born of a bigamous relationship would not also be baptised. I'm wondering how you might know that the children were born of an affair in the 1700s, perhaps you know that the husband was elsewhere - prison, war etc? In many cases the baptism register simply says "name" son or daughter of "father's name".
It is also not unusual to have multiple children baptised on the same day - for many different reasons.
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Thank you Maddys52, I have two cases in my tree like this.
This girl was married and had a son, but the son died aged 10, with his mother named with a new surname.
Hence the relationship. Original husband died 2 years later in the same area, and the four children were baptized a month after that. There must be a reason they would not have been baptized earlier.
Regards, Rob
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Maybe if you tell us who you are talking about with dates we can have a look and see what we think
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Slightly off topic but I recently came across a Victorian family of 6 kids, aged 0 to 14, all baptised on the same day.
Zaph
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I've found several lots of whole families of children baptised on same occasions. It happens.
TY
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I have twice found cousins baptised on the same day - not obvious because there were different surnames. But a good excuse for a family party!
Sometimes urban churches had an effort to bring in all the unbaptised children on one day, which resulted in siblings arriving together. I have also found they could be inaccurate in record keeping on these occasions. I had one ten-year old whose birth date was ten years late, brothers with a different mother's forename (no remarriage) and a visiting vicar who wrote the name of his own church at the head of one page, instead of that of the church where he was helping out.
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In my tree I have 3 children baptised on the same day, one aged about 7, one 3 yrs and a baby of several months. Not unusual at all. Recorded as base born of the mother, since the parents weren't actually married (I still can't find out why! My brick wall. They lived together from at least the time of this baptism (1810), had 3 more children (1812-17), but never married. The mother died in 1836).
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My question is why did this family not baptise their children until after the death of the original husband? This isn't the first time this has happened in my family tree after a death so it is not an uncommon event.
Anyhow Joseph Stephens married Hester Wyatt 1708 in Wiltshire and had a son Joseph in 1710. This son Joseph Stephens died in 1718 and it was noted that he was the son of Hester Slade.
Joseph the father died in 1720 and the Slades had their four children baptised one month later. Obviously the Slades were living in a de facto relationship having never married but having four children in the previous ten years.
Why did they wait? Maybe they didn't want to advertise their unmarried relationship, maybe it was some sign of respect to the original husband? Just wondering?
Seems like teregram31510 could have the same scenario.
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Hi,
Perhaps the father did not believe in baptism or at least child baptism? Not unusual, there could be many reasons.
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Seems like teregram31510 could have the same scenario.
In my case there is a vague possibility that one or other of the unmarried couple had been married to someone else but couldn't prove he or she had died. Perhaps abroad? The male partner always aknowledged his children since they all bore his surname, rather than hers.
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I know of a family where the husband and wife married 1854 in England.
They were not on the England/Wales census of 1861 but I found them in the 1860 USA census with a child born in New York 1856.
They had 3 other children in USA, before having a child born 1866 in England.
The 4 older children were all baptised on the same day in the south of England.
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Anyhow Joseph Stephens married Hester Wyatt 1708 in Wiltshire and had a son Joseph in 1710. This son Joseph Stephens died in 1718 and it was noted that he was the son of Hester Slade.
Joseph the father died in 1720 and the Slades had their four children baptised one month later. Obviously the Slades were living in a de facto relationship having never married but having four children in the previous ten years.
Looking at the parish registers for Hilperton and nearby parishes, I can't see a marriage for Mervin SLADE and Hester - have you found one at all (before or after the death of Joseph STEPHENS)?
I also note that the parish register for the marriage of Joseph STEPHENS on 6 Jan 1718/19 looks like he marries Hester WATTS of Seend.
Interesting that Joseph STEPHENS was buried in Trowbridge "a married man". On the same day a William STEPHENS was buried "a young man" - a relation?
Why did they wait? Maybe they didn't want to advertise their unmarried relationship, maybe it was some sign of respect to the original husband? Just wondering?
It does seem likely that the 4 children John, Thomas, Ann and Sarah were baptised after Joseph STEPHENS died, perhaps the family wanted to ensure they were baptised with family name SLADE? I don't think they were concerned about their defacto relationship being known - son Joseph's burial shows that the priest knew Hester SLADE had previously been married to Joseph STEPHENS.
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Thankyou maddys52 for your thoughtful answer.
I have never seen a marriage for Mervin Slade and Hester, and Hester Watts (of Seend) is probably Hester born at Devizes in 1686. And I'm not sure about William Stephens who died in 1720.
Thanks, Rob